tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4109653649236707251.post8349058517783993914..comments2023-05-06T01:20:48.902-07:00Comments on Uncle Cephas: Were Jesus' Disciples "Illiterate Peasants"?Kephahttp://www.blogger.com/profile/00999385775493831638noreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4109653649236707251.post-57332083857059135322019-01-16T14:44:39.873-08:002019-01-16T14:44:39.873-08:00Statistics from the ancient world are largely gues...Statistics from the ancient world are largely guesswork.Kephahttps://www.blogger.com/profile/00999385775493831638noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-4109653649236707251.post-70428958035197418082017-05-20T11:57:24.238-07:002017-05-20T11:57:24.238-07:00Thank you for your work! I just discovered your bl...Thank you for your work! I just discovered your blog today and I pray that you continue. I have found multiple posts that are edifying. <br />Have you done any research in literacy levels in the ancient world? Do we actually have a firm basis for asserting that ~90% of the ancient world was illiterate, or did that number reach scholarly consensus and is now practically sacrosanct? <br />I am wondering if you can shed light on a question that has bothered me for some time. Luke uses two terms to describe the Apostles in Acts 4:13 - ἀγράμματος and ἰδιώτης. Critical scholars assume that the use of both of these terms must denote that they were hopelessly illiterate. I do not hold to that view, but must confess that I do not know how to answer them. Any thoughts on Luke's use of these two terms?<br /><br />-RobertAnonymousnoreply@blogger.com